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November 8, 2005

On the Uses of Torture

Should officers of the US government be allowed, under any circumstances, to torture people? Setting aside the definition of torture, I have to say "under some circumstances". Jon Henke disagrees on libertarian grounds, and I'd like to argue my case on libertarian grounds as well. (The comments thread at QandO is fantastic, as well.)

Should officers of the US government ever be allowed under any circumstances to torture American citizens, regardless of where and how captured? No. American citizens are covered by the 8th Amendment to the Constitution: "Excessive bail shall not be required, nor excessive fines imposed, nor cruel and unusual punishments inflicted." In fact, they are also covered by the 5th and 6th Amendments, and we've probably already gone too far in a few cases of this sort.

Should officers of the US government ever be allowed under any circumstances to torture people of any nationality, captured in the service of a nation state with which we are at war and which is a signatory nation to the Geneva Accords? No, because our treaty obligations under the Geneva Accords prohibit that.

Should officers of the US government ever be allowed under any circumstances not covered above to torture people? Yes, in at least a couple of cases. There are two in particular, but they are special cases of a more general case. The two are non-citizen pirates and terrorists captured abroad, and the general case that covers both is unlawful combatants waging war against the United States and who themselves give no quarter. One who gives no quarter can ask no quarter. Whether or not the US should torture in such cases is a practical decision, best left to the executive, within the limits set down by the legislature. But to deny even the possibility of torture in such cases means that the enemy — in these cases one who would, as noted, give no quarter — will know in advance how far he has to resist in order to win, and that will mean that our lesser methods will be ineffective. Indeed, limitations already placed on US officers may have already made most of our lesser methods ineffective.

So there are, I think, limited cases in which torture might be justified. However, I have no problem with the legislature setting that bar lower than I would. I only ask that the executive act within the bounds set by law, and it seems that so far they have been doing so, with the caveat that the law is quite unclear on such questions in some cases.

Posted by jeff at November 8, 2005 5:26 PM

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Comments

I think you mean the Geneva Conventions, not the Geneva Accords. Two completely different things.

You wouldn't allow a US citizen terrorist to be tortured but you would a non-US citizen... funny how place of birth makes such a difference... and there was me thinking all men were created equal. Clearly, some are still more equal than others.

Here's to spreading a little more 'freedom, democracy, and the rule of law'. ;)

Posted by: A Guest at November 14, 2005 11:17 PM

You are correct: I meant Geneva Conventions. Brain got the wrong term; fingers kept typing.

It's not place of birth, because that is neither a requirement for US citizenship nor certainly a likely condition for those captured enemies whose countries are signatories of the Geneva Conventions. Those are specific legal requirements that the US is signatory to, or constituted from, and thus cannot under any circumstance (as far as I am concerned, anyway) be abridged. That is what "rule of law" means, in part.

Neither freedom nor democracy are at issue in the case that I outlined: the case of unlawful combatants who give no quarter. This does not always apply even against combatants who are not from nations signatory to the Geneva Conventions, or even against all unlawful combatants. For example, the Taliban, while vicious in some ways, don't fall into the category of "would give no quarter" and should therefore not be subject to torture even if the executive powers would deem it useful. (I believe that the executive could, but has not chosen to, decide to subject those groups to torture today, and to that extent at least I think the current law gives too much latitude to the executive to torture.)

It should also be noted that even as things stand, the United States does not apparently torture captives of any kind, by any definition most people would think to use for the word. We do tend to put people under psychological and physical stress, in some cases painful but more often simply exhausting, because it is far harder to keep a story straight when you are exhausted and afraid and without hope than when you know you are safe. But torture as most people would define it, the deliberate causing of pain, maiming, and so forth, does not (thankfully) seem to be in our arsenal of techniques. Some particularly unthinking advocates would define torture to include things that are legal and common in any given police station in any free country; that in my opinion goes too far.

It is a tough question, though, and I certainly think it's one where legislative clarity would be helpful. As I noted, even though I set the bar such that pirates, terrorists and other "no quarter" type illegal combatants might be subject to torture if the executive so decides, I would certainly not object if the legislature were to promulgate more limited rules. What I was trying to do was to narrowly define the conditions where it might be appropriate, and I believe that I did exactly that.

I'm not sure whether you've simply misread my statements, or if you simply wish to believe the worst of Americans as a general rule, or if you're trying to make me personally feel guilty, or if it's something else. Given your tone, it's hard to tell.

I'm curious, though: to what extent should, say, Britain be able to use physical and mental pressure, or actual torture, and does it matter what might be the nature and identity of the particular person about whom the decision is being made, in your opinion?

Posted by: Jeff Medcalf [TypeKey Profile Page] at November 15, 2005 6:59 AM